Year wise GATE-AR (Gate Architecture and Planning) Solution

GATE ARCHITECTURE 2020 (SOLVED PAPER)

Exclusive from the
(by B.K. Das)

Section: Architecture Planning

(Q. No. 1-25, One marks each)

Q.1 In the architectural style of ancient North Indian Temples, the term ‘Adhisthana’ refers to
(A) Base Platform (B) Transept (C) Pinnacle (D) Vestibule

Answer: (A) Base Platform

Greek Temple Foundation and Base:

North Indian Temple Foundation and Base:

Q.2 Who among the following architects has NOT won the Pritzker Architecture Prize till 2019
(A) ) Moshe Safdie (B) Arata Isozaki (C) I. M. Pei (D) B. V. Doshi

Answer: (A) Moshe Safdie or (B) Arata Isozaki

2020- Yvonne Farrell, Shelley McNamara (Grafton Architects)
2019- Arata Isozaki 2018- B V Doshi
2017- Rafael Aranda, Carme Pigem and Ramon Vilalta of Spanish studio (RCR Arquitectes) 2016- Alejandro Aravena (GATE 2017)
2015- Frei Otto
2014- Shigeru Ban (Japanese Architect) 2013- Toyo Ito (Japanese Architect) 2012- Wang Shu (Chinese Architect) 2011- Edwardo Souto de Moura
2010- Kazuyo Sejima & Ryue Nishizawa 2009- Peter Zumthor (GATE 2010)
2008- Jean Nouvel
2007- Richard Rogers
2006- Paulo Mender de Rocha (GATE 2005)
2005- Thom Mayne

2004- Zaha Hadid
2003- Jorn Utzon (Sydney Opera House) 2002- Glenn Murcutt
2001- J. Herzog & Pierce de Meuron 2000- Rem Koolhas
1999- Norman Foster
1998- Renzo Piano
1997- Sverre Fehn
1996- Rafael Moneo (GATE 2008)
1995- Tadeo Ando
1994- Christian de Portzampare
1993- Fumihiko Maki (Japanese Architect) 1992- Alvaro Siza
1991- Robert Venturri
1990- Aldo Rossi
1989- Frank Gehry
1988- Oscar Niemayor
1988- Gorden Bunshaft
1987- Kenzo Tango
1986- Gotfried Bohn
1985- Hans Hollein
1984- Richard Meier 1983- I M Pei
1982- Kevin Roche
1981- James Sterling
1980- Luis Barragn
1979- Philip Johnson

Q.3 The stone used in the construction of Kailash temple at Ellora is
(A) Limestone (B) Basalt (C) Sandstone (D) Marble

Answer: (B) Basalt

Temple

Kingdom

Period

Stones Used/carved

Lomas Rishi Cave, Jehanabad, Bihar

Ashoka

322–185 BCE

Granite

Ajanta/Ellora Caves

Gupta Period

2nd- 5th Century CE

Basalt

Shore Temple, Mahabalipuram

Pallava Kingdom

700-728 CE

Granite

Meenakshi Temple

Pandya Dynasty Extension work by Nayak

Earlier temple- 6th century BC

Granite, Marble, Slate, Limestone

Lingraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar

Soma dynasty

1000 AD

Laterite

Brihadeshwara Temple, Tanjore

Chola

1010 AD

Granite

Kandariya Mahadeva, Khajuraho

Chandela Rajputs

1017-1029 CE

Sandstone with Granite foundation

Sun Temple, Modhera, Gujarat

Chalukya dynasty

1026-27 CE

Sandstone

Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu

Chalukya dynasty

11th -16th Century

Marble

Sun Temple, Konark

Eastern Ganga dynasty

13th Century

Khondolite- predominant material Chlorite- door jamb and some sculptures

Laterite- interior core

Fatehpur Sikri Monuments

Akbar (Mughal)

1571

Red Sandstone

Taj Mahal

Shahjahan

1632

Brick and cladded with Marble

Q.4 Four vertical lines having same thickness appear to be of the same height in perspective as shown in the figure. which line actually has the maximum height?


(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 4

Answer: (B)

Q.5 As per URDPFI Guidelines 2015, Government of India, choose the correct hierarchy of plans from higher to lower order.
(A) Perspective plan, Regional Plan, Development plan, Zonal plan
(B) Zonal plan, Development plan, Regional Plan, Perspective plan
(C) Perspective plan, Development plan, Regional Plan, Zonal plan
(D) Regional Plan, Perspective plan, Development plan, Zonal plan

Answer: (A) Perspective plan, Regional Plan, Development plan, Zonal plan

Q.6 Which of the following shapes can be used as in interlocking paver block without adding any other shape?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1

Answer: (A)

Q.7 In India, the Constitution (Seventy Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, delegates powers to institutions forming the third tier of government, which are
(A) Development Authority, Municipal Corporation and Municipality
(B) Municipal Corporation, Municipality and Nagar Panchayat
(C) Improvement Trust, Nagar Panchayat and Panchayat
(D) Development Authority, Improvement Trust and Panchayat

Answer: (B) Municipal Corporation, Municipality and Nagar Panchayat

Q.8 As on 2018, ‘Right to Property’ in India is a
(A) Secondary Right (B) Constitutional Rights (C) Fundamental Rights (D) Tertiary Rights

Answer: (B) Constitutional Rights

The fundamental rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India through Part III of the constitution, and in some cases to non-citizens too.
a) Right to Equality– Article 14,15,16 and 18.
b) Right to Freedom– Article 19,20, 21, 21A and 22.
c) Right against Exploitation – Article 23 and 24.
d) Right to Freedom of Religion – Article 25,26,27 and 28.
e) Cultural and Educational Rights – Article 29 and 30.
f) Right to Constitutional Remedies – Article 32.

Constitutional Rights: All rights that have been conferred to the citizens and enshrined in the Constitution of India but are not under the domain of Part III of the Constitution are said to be Constitutional Rights. A constitutional right is a supreme right guaranteed by our Constitution.

Q.9 Tendon is primarily used
(A) to pre-stress concrete (B) as a compression member (C) to prepare a tender document (D) as roof sheathing

Answer: (A) to pre-stress concrete

• Tendon — A steel element, such as a wire, cable, bar, rod or strand, or a bundle of such elements used to impart prestress to concrete when the element is tensioned.

Q.10 Emergency preparedness for risk reduction does NOT include
(A) rehabilitation (B) revision of code (C) relief distribution (D) rescue

Answer: (B) revision of code

o Crisis
• Is an event or series of events representing a critical threat to the health, safety, security or wellbeing of a community, usually over a wide area. Armed conflicts, epidemics, famine, natural disasters, environmental emergencies and other major harmful events may involve or lead to a humanitarian crisis.

o Disaster
• A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society causing widespread human, material, economic or environmental losses that exceed the ability of the affected community or society to cope using its own resources. A disaster is a function of the risk process. It results from the combination of hazards, conditions of vulnerability and insufficient capacity or measures to reduce the potential negative consequences of risk.
• Any occurrence that causes damage, ecological disruption, loss of human life or deterioration of health and health services on a scale sufficient to warrant an extraordinary response from outside the affected community or area.

o Emergency
• A sudden occurrence demanding immediate action that may be due to epidemics, to natural, to technological catastrophes, to strife or to other man-made causes . Hazard- Any phenomenon that has the potential to cause disruption or damage to people and their environment.

o Risk
• The probability of harmful consequences, or expected losses (deaths, injuries, property, livelihood, economic activity disrupted or environment damaged) resulting from interactions between natural or human-induced hazards and vulnerabilities .

o Vulnerability
• The conditions determined by physical, social, economic and environmental factors or processes, which increase the susceptibility of a community to the impact of hazards (1).
• The degree to which a population or an individual is unable to anticipate, cope with, resist and recover from the impact of a disaster.

Q.11 If Beam : Column :: Transom : X
Which of the following options can replace ‘X’ ?
(A) Balustrade (B) Ceiling (C) Sill (D) Mullion

Answer: (D) Mullion

Q.12 The correct chronological order of the given architectural movements is
(A) Romanesque; Roman; Renaissance; Gothic; Baroque
(B) Romanesque; Roman; Baroque; Gothic; Renaissance;
(C) Roman; Romanesque; Gothic; Renaissance; Baroque
(D) Roman; Romanesque; ; Gothic; Baroque; Renaissance

Answer: (C)

Timeline

Architecture Periods

Important Structures

11,600-3500 BC

Prehistoric Times

Stonehenge, Menhir, Pylons

3050-900 BC

Ancient Civilization

Pyramids, Great Bath at Mohenjodaro, Ziggurat

850BC- 476AD

Classical

Pantheon, Rome; Parthenon- Athens; Colloseum- Rome

527- 565 AD

Byzantine

Hagia Sophia, Istanbul

800-1200 AD

Romanesque

Basilica of St. Sernin in Toulouse, France

1100-1450 AD

Gothic

Notre Dame Cathedral, Paris

1400-1600

Renaissance

Villa Rotonda, Venice, Italy

1600-1830

Baroque

Palace of Versailles, France

1650-1790

Rococo

Pilgrimage Church of Wies

1730-1925

Neo Classicism

White House, Washington DC

1890-1914

Art Nouveau

Secession Building – Vienna

1925-1937

Art Deco

Chrysler Building in New York City

1900-

Modernism

Works of Rem Koolhaas, I.M. Pei, Le Corbusier, Philip Johnson, and Mies van der Rohe.

1972-

Post Modernism

Works of Robert Venturi, Philip Johnson

1997-

Neo Modernism and Parametrcism

Works of Frank Gehry, Zaha Hadid, Moshe Shafdie

Q.13 The decay of sound in large room is indicated in the following figure. The spike within the dashed zone denotes


(A) ) Flutter echo (B) Early reflection
(C) Perfect sound diffusion (D) Echo

Answer: (D) Echo

Q.14 For the same thickness of material layers, relative position of insulation in the wall sections 1 and 2 shown below will have an impact on


(A) Thermal Time Constant (B) Thermal Conductivity
(C) Thermal Resistivity (D) Thermal Trnsmittance

Answer: (A) Thermal Time Constant

• Thermal inertia of a building can be quantified by thermal time constant which describes how long it takes, where the heating/cooling of a building is discontinuous for building temperature to change. Thermal time constant is defined as the ratio of a building’s thermal mass and overall heat loss.

Q.15 The solar altitude angle on April 16 at 7:00 AM in Kochi is 16º. The same solar altitude angle will occur at the same time in the same year at the same location on
(A) October 21 (B) September 23 (C) August 27 (D) July 21

Answer: (C) August 27

Calculate the number of days to 22 June from 16 April = 14 April days + 31 May days + 22 June days = 67th day

Add 67th day to 22 June = August 27.

Q.16 In perspective drawing, the picture plane is in between the Object and the Observer. If the Observer comes closer straight towards the picture Plane, without changing the distance between Object and Picture Plane the perspective image will be

(A) ) Bigger than the previous image
(B) Smaller than the previous image
(C) Will become the mirror image of the previous
(D) Will remain the same as the previous image

Answer: (B) Smaller than the previous image

Q.17 Shyama- Rai temple of Bishnupur in West Bengal, is an example of
(A) ) Stone Carved Nagara Style Temple (B) Panch-Ratna type terracotta temple
(C) Nava-Ratna type terracotta temple (D) Stone Carved Dravidian Style Temple

Answer: (B) Panch-ratna type terracotta temple

Ratna Style of Temple (Bishnupur, West Bengal)
First and most prominent is the Ratna style, which has a flat roof with a canopy or shikhara on top. Here the temples do not have a flat roof, but a slightly curved roof, which is a depiction of the style of roofs in the region.

Ek (One) Ratna

Panch (Five) Ratna

Nav (Nine) Ratna

If there is only one shikhara in the center of the roof it is called Ek-Ratna

If there are 5 shikhara’s – one on center and 4 on the four corners of the roof, it is called Panchratna

Total nine shikhara’s; Main at Centre, set of 4 shikhara’s on 4 sides and 4 on the four corners of the roof, it is called a Navratna temple.

Bishnupur, West Bengal Prominent Ek-Ratna temple is Madan Mohan temple. Built-in 1694 CE by King Durjan Singh and has noteworthy terracotta work. Other examples are Radha Madhab and Radha Gobind temple, which has a unique mini chariot in the form of a temple.

Shyama- Rai Temple. The central shikhara is octagonal while the corner shikhara’s are rectangular in shape with interesting curvi-conical roofs.

Dakshineshwaar Kali Temple, Kolkata

Q.18 Which one of the following is NOT a land use zone?
(A) Heritage Zone (B) Industrial Zone
(C) Commercial Zone (D) Agriculture Zone

Answer: (A) Heritage Zone

URDPFI Simplified Urban Landuse Classification.

S. No

Use Category (URDPFI 2016)

1

Residential

2

Commercial

3

Industrial

4

Public and Semi Public

5

Mixed

6

Recreational

7

Transport and Communication

8

Primary Activity

9

Protective and Undevelopable Use Zone

10

Special Area

Q.19 ‘Formulation of GIS based Master Plan’ is a sub scheme of
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(B) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Rurban Mission
(C) Atal Mission for Rejuvination and Urban Transformation
(D) Smart City Mission

Answer: (C) Atal Mission for Rejuvination and Urban Transformation

Q.20 One Hectare is equal to
(A) 10000 m2 (B) 4840 m2 (C) 4048 m2 (D) 4000 m2

Answer: (A) 10000 m2

Q.21 One of the cities added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2019 is
(A) Chandigarh (B) Walled City, Jaipur (C) Walled City, Ahmadabad (D) Fatehpur Sikri

Answer: (B) Walled City, Jaipur

Q.22 In the given contour map, the angle at ‘A’ (in degrees, rounded off to two decimal places) is ____________.

Answer: 18.2 to 18.5

tan θ = 10 m/ 30 m
tan θ = 0.33
θ = tan-1(0.33)

θ = 18.26º

Q.23 A 1.2 m high window is located on a south facing wall. The solar azimuth angle is equal to the wall azimuth angle and the solar altitude angle is 60º. The minimum depth (in meters, rounded off to two decimal places) overhang required to completely shade the window is

Answer: 0.68-0.70

tan 60º = 1.2 m/ x

x = 1.2 m/ 1.73

= 0.69 m

Solar Azimuth

The solar azimuth angle is the azimuth angle of the sun. It is most often defined as the angle from due north in a clockwise direction

Wall Azimuth

The direction that you are looking at when looking out through the window in the wall from inside the building.

Roof Azimuth

The roof azimuth angle is the azimuth angle of the equivalent wall. For example increase the tilt angle until it is vertical and it is the orientation looking out from inside. A horizontal roof has an azimuth angle of 0o and a tilt angle of 0o

 

Q.24 In the given figure, the area of the shaded portion is

Answer: 8

Q.25 Average density of a highway is 25 vehicles per km. Average volume of the vehicles on the highway is 520 vehicles per hour. The mean speed (in km/hr, rounded off in one decimal place is)

Answer: 20.8 km/hr

Mean Speed = 520 vehicles per hr/ 25 vehicles per km
= 20.8 km/hr

(Q. No. 26-55, Two marks each)

Q.26 Match the terminologies of Munsell Colour Wheel in Group I with their corresponding descriptions in Group II

Group I 

Group II

(P) Hue

(1) Addition of black colour to the base colour

(Q) ) Chroma

(2) Radial colour variation

(R) Value

(3) Addition of White to the base colour

(S) Tint

(4) Colour variation through angular differences

 

(5) Vertical colour variation

(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Answer: (C) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

o Hue- (Angular) 1st Dimension. By definition it is pure colour, containing no white, black or grey. Hue is displayed on Horizontal ring in Munsell Colour solid. There are ten hues. Five principle hues are Red, Yellow, Green, Blue, Purple and five others are Y-R, G-Y, B-G,
P-B, R-P.

o Value:(Vertical) 2nd Dimension. Degree of colous luminosity i.e. brightness. Displayed on vertical bar, ranging from 0 (black) at bottom to 10 (white) at top. 5 is grey.

o Chroma: (Radial) 3rd Dimension. Measure of quality of relative
colourfulness or greyness. Also known as intensity, purity or saturation. It starts from 0 and there is no intrinsic upper limit to chroma.
Eg : 10 PB 7/12
 Here PB represents Purple- Blue
 Number 10 before PB represents purity….. it could be 2.5PB, 5PB (purest) ,7.5PB or 10PB.
 7 represents Value
 12 is Chroma

Q.27 Match the plants form in Group I with their botanical names in Group II, as per ‘A Handbook of Landscape’, CPWD 2013, Government of India

Group I 

Group II

(P) Columnar

(1) Pinus roxburghii

(Q) Globular

(2) Ipomoea grandiflora

(R) Weeping 

(3) Juniperus chinensis

(S) Pyramidal

(4) Salix babylonica

 

(5) Mimusops elengi

(A) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Answer: (A) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Q.28 Match the images of Garden in Group 1 with their names in Group II

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-5
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.29 Match the architects in Group I with their projects in Group II

Group I 

Group II

(P) Victor Horta

(1) Farnsworth House

(Q) Gierrit Rietvelt

(2) Robie House

(R) Mies van der Rohe

(3) Tassel House

(S) Frank Lloyd Wright

(4) Schroder House

 

(5) Vanna Venturi House

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Answer: (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.30 Match the graphical representation in Group I with corresponding elements in Group II

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Answer: (A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

Q.31 Based on the psychrometric chart given below, match the vector in Group I with the respective process in Group II

Group I 

Group II

(P) V1 

(1) Heating and humidification

(Q) V2

(2) Cooling and humidification

 (R) V3 

(3) Heating and dehumidification

(S) V4

(4) Sensible heating

 

(5) Humidification

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2
(C) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Answer: (A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

 In sensible heating process the temperature of air is increased without changing its moisture content.

Q.32 Match the software tools in Group I with their primary applications in Group II

Group I

Group II

(P) ETabs 

(1) Acoustic analysis

(Q) ) Carto 

(2) Structural analysis

(R) eQuest

(3) Statistical analysis

(S) SPSS 

(4) Energy simulation

 

(5) Geo-spatial analysis

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Answer: (B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

Q.33 Match the structural form in Group I with their corresponding illustration in Group II


(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Answer: (C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Shell roof is three-dimensional structures consisting of thin membrane slabs, curved in one or more directions which transfer the loads on points of support, i.e. columns, beams, walls etc.

Q.34 Match the books in Group I with the corresponding authors in Group II

Group I

Group II

(P) The Autobiography of an Idea

(1) Christopher Charles Beninger

(Q) Letters to a Young Architect

(2) Sunil Khilnani

(R) A Pattern Language

(3) Francis D. K. Ching

(S) Architecture: Forms, Space and Order

(4) Louis H. Sullivan

 

(5) Christopher Alexander

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Answer: (A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

Q.35 Match the names of tactile paving in Group I with their patterns in
Group II


(A) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Answer: (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Tactile paving was first developed in Japan by Seiichi Miyake in 1965. In Japanese these tactile tiles are called Tenji blocks. These blocks were first used in Okayama City in 1967. Such blocks are also called truncated domes.
Most persons with visual impairment have some degree of sight. This is the reason tactile tiles are made in bright colors like yellow and red. These colors are easier to be seen by partially-sighted people.

Red titles are often used for indicating a controlled crossing. For example, you will see red colored tactile tiles on crossings where there is a traffic and/or pedestrian light available. This indicates to the partially-sighted person that she can use pedestrian light to cross the road. Yellow colored tactile tiles are used for uncontrolled crossings.
Persons with visual impairment use a cane to feel the path in front of them. When cane touches these patterned tactile tiles, the bearer gets various types of information on how to navigate the way ahead.

Type of Tactile Tiles

Meaning

Images

Tiles with Parallel Blister Lines

Tiles with embossed flat-topped blisters in a square pattern are used to indicate that there is a road crossing.

Tiles with Offset Blisters

These tiles indicate that there is a train platform ahead. If one is not careful, she might fall into the ditch. Such tiles can be used to indicate a sudden level change.

Tiles with Across Stripes (Corduroy)

Placement of these tiles show that there are stairs or some other hurdle ahead. Be careful. These tiles are also called corduroy hazard warning tiles.Places where these tiles are often used include:

·         The top and bottom of stairs

·         At the foot of a ramp

·         At level crossing

·         Where people may unintentionally walk directly on to the platform at a railway station

·         Where a footway joins a shared route

Tiles with Along Stripes

These tiles indicate that it is safe to keep going ahead. The path has no hurdles and it’s safe.

Lozenge-shaped Tactile Tiles

These tiles warn the blind people that they are approaching the edge of an on-street transit line (e.g. a tram line).

Q.36 Match the name of architects in Group I with the buildings designed by them in Group II

Group I 

Group II

(P) Brinda Somaya 

(1) Museum of Tribal Heritage, Bhopal

(Q) Sheila Sai Prakash

(2) St. Thomas Cathedral, Mumbai

(R) Revathy Kamath 

(3) Bait-ir- Rauf Mosque, Dhaka

(S) Marina Tabassem 

(4) Indian Navel Academy, Kerala

 

(5) Cholamandal Artist’s Village, Chennai

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(B) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (B) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

• St. Thomas Cathedral, Mumbai was not designed by Brinda Somaya, but it was renovated by her. It was opened in 1718.

Q.37 Match the terms in Group I with the parameters in Group II

Group I

Group II

(P) Frontal Area Density

(1) Active Green Area

(Q) Sky View Factor

(2) Urban Density in Third Dimension

(R) Drift Index

(3) Built Density in Two Dimension

(S) Biotope Factor

(4) Lateral Stiffness

 

(5) cross Sectional Property of Urban Canyon

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Answer: (B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Plan Area Density and Frontal Area Density:

Plan Area Density = Ratio of built Area/ Total area of land

Frontal Area Density = Windward facing facade area/ Total area of land

Sky View Factor: A Sky View Factor (SVFs) represents the ratio at a point in space between the visible sky and a hemisphere centered over the analyzed location.

Drift Index: The drift index is a simple estimate of the lateral stiffness of the building and is used almost exclusively to limit damage to nonstructural components.

Biotope Area Factor: The BAF expresses the ratio of the ecologically effective surface area to the total land area.

Biotope Area Factor =ecologically effective surface areas/ total land area

Types of surfaces and weighting factors per m2
(Surface types not mentioned can be calculated as long as they have a positive effect on the ecosystem)
• Sealed surfaces- (Weighting factor: 0.0 per m2): Surface is impermeable to air and water and has no plant growth (e.g., concrete, asphalt, slabs with a solid subbase)
• Partially sealed surfaces- (Weighting factor: 0.3 per m2) :Surface is permeable to water and air; as a rule, no plant growth (e.g., clinker brick, mosaic paving, slabs with a sand or gravel subbase)
• Semi-open surfaces – (Weighting factor: 0.5 per m2); Surface is permeable to water and air, water infiltration and plant growth (e.g., gravel with grass, wooden cobbles, grass paving blocks)

• Surfaces with vegetation,unconnected to the soil below- (Weighting factor: 0.5 per m2) :Surfaces with vegetation that have no connection to the ground and less than 80 cm of soil covering
• Surfaces with vegetation, unconnected to the soil below- (Weighting factor: 0.7 per m2) :Surfaces with vegetation that have no connection to the ground but more than 80 cm of soil covering
• Surfaces with vegetation, connected to the soil below- (Weighting factor: 1.0 per m2) :Vegetation connected to soil below, available for development of flora and fauna
• Rainwater infiltration per m2 of roof area- (Weighting factor: 0.2 pro m2) :Rainwater infiltration for replenishment of groundwater; infiltration over surfaces with existing vegetation
• Vertical greenery with connection to the ground- (Weighting factor: 0.5 per m2): Direct connection of the vertical greenery with the soil, supply with nutrients and water directly over the roots in the soil
• Vertical greenery without connection to the ground- (Weighting factor: 0.7 per m2) Vertical or horizontal vegetation on a wall without direct connection to soil on the ground, permanent planters supplying the vegetation areas, artificial irrigation
• Extensive roof greening- (Weighting factor: 0.5 per m2) : Nature-like design of the roof surfaces with a substrate thickness ˂ 20 cm without artificial irrigation
• Semi-intensive roof greening –(Weighting factor: 0.7 per m2); Mixture of extensive and intensive roof greening with a substrate thickness › 12 cm (depending on the chosen plantings), usually in combination with artificial irrigation
• Intensive roof greening (Weighting factor: 0.8 per m2): Design of the roof similar to ground-based green areas with a substrate thickness › 15 cm, usually in combination with artificial irrigation

Q.38 Match the structural system in Group I with their potential causes of failure in Group II

Group I

Group II

(P) Flat Slab  

(1) Thrust

(Q) Long Column 

(2) Flutter

(R) Arch  

(3) Punching Shear

(S) Tensile Fabric  

(4) Buckling

 

(5) Moment

A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2
(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Punching shear is a type of failure of reinforced concrete slabs subjected to high localized forces. In flat slab structures this occurs at column support points. The failure is due to shear. This type of failure is catastrophic because no visible signs are shown prior to failure.

Buckling of Columns is a form of deformation as a result of axial- compression forces. This leads to bending of the column, due to the instability of the column.

Thrust in Arch: The thrust is the resultant of two forces: the weight of the arch and the horizontal thrust. Thus, the thrust always pushes downwards with an angle which depends on the arch profile and weight. The intensity of the horizontal thrust is generated by the weight of the voussoirs, which rest on each other, and the flatness of the arch. The flatter the arch is, the more intense the horizontal thrust is.
The horizontal thrust (HT) is applied on both springers, but it is also found on top of the arch, as it represents the balance of the second half of the arch. The horizontal thrust can be minimized by the optimization of the arch profile. Nevertheless, there will always be a thrust which can be neutralized by means of buttresses, truss rods or ring beams.

Flutter in Tensile Fabric: If any section of a fabric loses tension, it “bags”
and “flutters”

Q.39 Match the masonry bond type in Group I with the corresponding illustration in Group II


(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Answer: (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Q.40 Match the characteristics type in Group I with the type of settlements in Group II as given in URDPFI Guidelines 2015, Government of India

Group I

Group II

(P) Zones of transition from natural to
urban land uses located between the
outer limits of urban and regional
centres and rural environment

(1) Counter Magnets

(Q) Towns having potential for investment and development identified on the basis of their inter-aerial relationship with the regional nodal centre

(2) Satellite Towns

(R) Settlements that are growing sub- nodal centres but located out of the direct functionally linked areas of the growth node / nodal centre in the region

(3) Peri- Urban Areas

(S) Located near or within reasonable distance, well connected by transportation route of the growth node or metropolitan city and dependent on growth node largely for employment

(4) Priority Towns

 

(5) Statutory Towns

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5
(B) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.41 A population of 2500 persons require a minimum area of 3000 m2 for primary schools. For the population in four different sectors given in the table below, the sector having maximum shortage of school area per person.

Sector

Population

Number of existing schools

Existing area of each school (m2)

1

20000

5

2000

2

15000

4

4500

3

12500

2

2500

4

10000

4

1500

Answer: Sector 3

For 2500 person school area required is 3000 m2

Sector

Population

Number of existing schools

Existing area of each school (m2)

Aggregate school area required

Aggregate School area available = No. of schools

× area of each school

Deficit school area

shortage of school area per person. (m2/ person)

1

20000

5

2000

24,000

10,000

14,000

0.7

2

15000

4

4500

18,000

18,000

nil

nil

3

12500

2

2500

15,000

5000

10,000

0.8

4

10000

4

1500

10,000

6000

4000

0.6

Q.42 Number of married couples in a household along with number of rooms (for a household) are given in the table. Assuming each married couple needs one separate room, the total number of additional rooms required for them is

Number of Married couples in a household

Number of households with

1 Room

2 Room

3 Room

0

2500

450

100

1

4700

3000

2000

2

3600

5500

1100

3

432

750

400

Answer: 5214

Every married couples need a separate room.

Number of Married couples in a household

Number of households with

Extra room needed

1 Room

2 Room

3 Room

0

2500

450

100

nil

1

4700

3000

2000

nil

2

3600

5500

1100

3600 ×1= 3600

3

432

750

400

(432 ×2) + (750 × 1)

= 1614

Q.43 In a residential complex, the central play area is to be converted as a detention pond for storm water management.
For a 24 hour rainfall event of 100 mm, a 100 % storm water of central play area and 70 % storm water run-off from rest of the complex is to be held at a detention pond. Area distribution in the residential complex is given in the table.

Type

Area (m2)

Run-off coefficient

Apartment Blocks

1250

0.80

Central Play Area

150

0.60

Other Permeable Areas

200

0.70

Other Imperrmeable Areas

400

0.90

The required depth of the detention pond (in mm) is ________.

Answer: 760 mm

Type

Area (m2)

Run-off coefficient

Total Rainfall (m)

Percentage of ruoff collected

Total vol of rainfall collected (m3)

Apartment Blocks

1250

0.80

0.1

0.7

70

Central Play Area

150

0.60

0.1

1

9

Other Permeable Areas

200

0.70

0.1

0.7

9.8

Other Imperrmeable Areas

400

0.90

0.1

0.7

25.2

Total vol. of water to be collected

114 m3

Required depth = 114m3/150 m2

= 0.76 m = 760 mm

Q.44 In the plot shown below , ‘S1’ and ‘S2’ are two non- directional point, having a sound intensity level of 95 dB and 60 db, respectively, at a distance of 1 m from each point source. Considering free field conditions, the effective sound intensity level at the receiver location ‘R’ (in dB, rounded off to two decimal places) is

Answer: 75- 79 dB

95 dB has more than 1000 times more intensity than 60 dB. Since only two places of decimal is required we ignore the intensity of 60 dB.
Calculating power at source for 95 dB sound.
Intensity corresponding to 95 dB

Distance

dB

1

95

2

89

4

83

8

77

16

71

Q.45 5 A room measures 5m × 10m × 3m (L×B×H). Consider the following conditions Total solar radiation incident on the roof surface = 800 W/m2
Outdoor air temperature = 40C
Outside film coefficient of the roof surface = 18 W/m2 deg C
The outdoor mean radiant temperature is equal to outdoor air temperature

The minimum reduction required in solar absorption of the roof (rounded off to two decimal places) to achieve a 20º reduction in sol air temperature is _________.

Answer: 0.43- 0.47

What is sol air temperature?
• The outside air temperature which, in the absence of solar radiation, would give the same temperature distribution and rate of heat transfer through a wall (or roof) as exists due to the combined effects of the actual outdoor temperature distribution plus the incident solar radiation.

 

Q.46 The activity duration, early start, early finish, late start and late finish of the three activities ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’ are shown in the following figure. The independent float of activity ‘Q’ is

Answer: 1 day

Independent Float of activity Q=
Early Successor (R) – Late Predessor (P) – Activity duration of Q
22 – 15 – 6 = 1 day

Q.47 A square based regular pyramid has all sides equal to 10 units. Its height (in the same units, rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: 7.07

BCDE is the base of the pyramid while height is AF
BD is diagonal of square base and half of it will be (10√2)/2 = 5√2
Consider the triangle AFB
(AF)2 + (BF)2 = (AB)2 (Pythagoras Theorem)
(AF)2 + (5√2)2 = (10)2
(AF)2 = 100 – 50

AF = √50 = 7.07 units

Q.48 8 A parking area measuring 52 m × 4.67 m is approached through a driveway as shown in the given illustration. The parking is designed at an angle of 30º with the parking bay of 2.5m × 5m

The number of cars that can be parked in the designated parking area considering no car overshoots the length of the parking area is

Answer: 10

For 30º parking no. of cars = [(L-1.25)/5]/5
=( 52-1.25)/5
= 50.75/5= 10. 15 (say 10 cars)

Q.49 Plan and section of an isolated foundation is given below. The volume of concrete up to Ground Level (GL)
(in m3, rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Answer: 3.1 to 3.4

Portion of foundation

Volume

Volume (m3)

Rectangular base (L× B × H)

2.5× 2 × 0.4

2.00

Truncated pyramid 1 ×h [a2 +ab + b2] 3

1 × 0.5 × [ 5 + 1 + 0.2]

3

1.03

Column

0.2 × 1.1

0.22

Volume (m3)

3.23

Q.50 Top floor of a 25 story building is using a flush valve system with a minimum fixture pressure of 1.0 kg/cm2. If static pressure increases by 0.3 kg/cm2 per metre length and friction loss is zero, then height of the bottom of the water tank from the top fixture (in meters, rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________ .

Answer: 3.30 to 3.40 m

For a fixture to operate minimum pressure required is 1.0 kg/cm2
Pressure develops @ 0.3 kg/cm2 for every metre of vertical length

Q.51 In a single phase alternate current circuit, an electric lamp is rated 100 watts. If 220 volts is impressed on it and the power factor is 0.85, the energy (in watt hour, rounded off to one decimal place) delivered in an hour is ___________.

Answer: 116 to 117 watt hour

In electrical engineering, the power factor of an AC electrical power system is defined as the ratio of the real power absorbed by the load to the apparent power flowing in the circuit,

Power Factor = real power/ apparent power
0.85 = 100/ apparent power

Apparent power = 100/0.85 = 117.64 watt
Energy delivered in one hour = 117.64 watt × 1 hour = 117.64 watt.hr

Q.52 A simply supported RCC beam of cross section 0.4 × 0.6 m covers a span of 8 m. It is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 30 kN/m. If the unit weight of concrete is 24 kN/m3, the tensile stress (in N/mm2, rounded off to two decimal places at the bottom of the beam at mid-span is ______.

Answer: 11.32 N/mm2

Q.53 A basement wall resists lateral pressure exerted by soil and water. The soil pressure amounts to 4.5 kN/m2 for every meter of depth below Ground Level (GL). The sub-soil water level is 1.0 m below GL and hydrostatic pressure of water is 9.8 kN/m2 for every meter of depth below GL. The total lateral pressure (in kN/m2, rounded off to one decimal place) exerted on the wall 2 m below GL is

Answer: 18.8 kN/m2

Soil Pressure at 2 m depth = 4.5 kN/m2 × 2

= 9.0 kN/m2

Hydrostatic Pressure = 9.8 kN/m2
Total Pressure (Soil Pressure + hydrostatic Pressure) = 18.8 kN/m2

Q.54 Assuming that the population growth trend given in the table will continue, the population (in persons) for the year 2031 will be

S. No.

Year

Population (in person)

1

1981

1,30,440

2

1991

1,69,572

3

2001

2,20,444

4

2011

2,86,577

Answer: 4,84,315

S. No.

Year

Population (in person)

Increase in decadal population

Increase in % decadal population

1

1981

1,30,440

 

2

1991

1,69,572

39,132

29.99

3

2001

2,20,444

50,868

29.99

4

2011

2,86,577

66,133

29.99

We observe a Geometric growth with a decadal growth rate of 29.99 %


Q.55 A developer would like to select a residential plot of 3000 m2 for group housing in a city. Different options with varying development controls are given. In every group housing plot, 15% of the Floor Area Ratio (FAR) over and above the maximum permissible FAR has to be utilized for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) units. The maximum built up area (in m2) available from the options given below is ________.

Area

Ground Coverage (%)

FAR

1

30

1.5

2

20

2.0

3

40

2.0

4

15

3.0

Answer: 10,350

Area of the Residential plot is 3000 m2

Area

Ground Coverage (%)

FAR

Total Built up area as per FAR (m2)

1

30

1.5

4500

2

20

2.0

6000

3

40

2.0

6000

4

15

3.0

9000

In option 4 adding 15% area above maximum permissible FAR for EWS units = 9000 + (9000 × 15 ) = 10,350 m2

Section: General Aptitude

(Q. No. 1-5, One marks each)

Q. No. 1: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred Mary Kom, a six time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi

(A) on, at      (B) to, at         (C) on, in         (D) with,at
Answer: (A) on, at

Q. No. 2: Despite a string of poor performances, the chances of L. Rahul’s selection in the team are

(A) slim (B) bright        (C) obvious   (D) uncertain

Answer: (B) bright

Q. No. 3: Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover : Uncover : : Associate:  

(A) Inassociate (B) Disssociate           (C) Unassociate         (D) Misassociate

Answer: (B) Disssociate

Q. No. 4: Hit by floods, the kharif (summer shown) crops in various parts of the country have been Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food grain production target of 291 million tonnes in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July- August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulse during the November- February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the following passage

(A) Officials feel that the food- grain production target cannot be met due to floods

(B) Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November- February period.

(C) Officials hope that the food gain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

(D) Officials declared that the food grain production target will be met due to good

Answer: (C)

Q. No. 5: The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural number is

(A) 2n2 + n  (B) n2 -1 (C) 2n2 – n                  (D) n2 +n

Answer: (D) n2  +n

(Q. No. 6-10, Two marks each)

Q. No. 6: Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

(A) Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks

(B) Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks

(C) Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks

(D) Decreae in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks

Answer: (A)

Q. No. 7: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table:

  1. S is seated opposite to W
  2. U is seated at the second place to the right of R.
  3. T is seated at the third place to the left of
  4. V is the neighbor of S

Which of the following must be true

(A) P is a neighbor of R  (B) R is the left neighbor of S  (C) Q is the neighbor of R   (D) P is not seated opposite to Q

Answer: (D) P is not seated opposite to Q

Q. No. 8: The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. Two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars wre travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

(A) 66.6          (B) 88.2           (C) 75.2           (D) 116.5

Answer: (C) 75.2

Q. No. 9: For a matrix M = [mij]; I,j= 1,2,3,4 the diagonal elements are all zero and mij  mji . The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is  

(A) 16       (B) 0          (C) 12        (D) 6

Answer: (D) 6

Q. No. 10: The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013-18 is ____________.

(A) 15: 17

(B) 17: 16

(C) 17: 15

(D) 16: 17

Answer: (D) 16: 17

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